There are 30 questions in this pre-course evaluation. All questions are multiple choice and mainly have one correct answer. Where more than one answer maybe correct the question will usually say either ‘choose X number of options’ or ‘tick all that apply’.
The questions are in a logical sequence covering the oesophagus, endoscopy and the stomach though you can move around the test and review your answers.
The objective of the test is not to research each question before answering, it is to measure your current working knowledge of some upper GI conditions and diseases we often come across in primary care. The resultant score will be used not to measure you, but provide a baseline from which we can measure the impact of the course across all participants.
Please complete before embarking on the course. Once you click start you have a maximum of 40 minutes, must answer all the questions and you cannot retake the test. Thank you.
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Question 1 of 30
Eosinophilic Esophagitis generally understood to be:
Question 2 of 30
The gold standard approach for diagnosing Eosinophilic Esophagitis is:
Question 3 of 30
Which of the following is a primary dysmotility disorder of the oesophagus:
Question 4 of 30
First line treatments for Eosinophilic Esophagitis without overt obstructive features, according to the 2022 BGS guidance, includes:
Question 5 of 30
The primary risk factors for oesophageal adenocarcinoma include (choose 2 options):
Question 6 of 30
The annual risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma in patients with non-dysplastic Barrett’s oesophagus is:
Question 7 of 30
Which of the following is considered the gold standard test to diagnose achalasia?
Question 8 of 30
Which of the following are recommended treatment options for achalasia (tick all that apply)?
Question 9 of 30
Which of the following is a scoring system used to classify ulcers identified at endoscopy?
Question 10 of 30
What is the name of the protocol used to assess the stomach of a patient with atrophic gastritis at the time of endoscopy?
Question 11 of 30
Endoscopic features of CAG (chronic atrophic gastritis) include which of the following (tick all that apply):
Question 12 of 30
The Hill classification can be used at endoscopy to classify the size of which of the following:
Question 13 of 30
A 52 year old patient with AF who takes Edoxaban attends for a diagnostic upper GI endoscopy to investigate for cause of iron-deficient anaemia. What advice should he have been given before his procedure with regards to his Edoxaban?
Question 14 of 30
A patient attends for gastroscopy and dilation of known stricture. They take Warfarin for a prosthetic metal heart valve. How many days before his procedure should he stop taking Warfarin?
Question 15 of 30
A patient with a history of peripheral vascular disease takes regular Clopidogrel. He attends for a diagnostic gastroscopy with biopsies. He has no other risk factors for haemorrhage, or any other antiplatelet/anticoagulant medication. What should he do with regards to his antiplatelet medication prior to his endoscopy?
Question 16 of 30
According to the BSG, which of the following is defined as a high-risk endoscopic procedure with regards to antiplatelet and anticoagulant medication (tick all that apply)?
Question 17 of 30
In which of the following scenarios would you consider antibiotic prophylaxis before performing the procedure?
Question 18 of 30
Which of the following cells are responsible for secreting hydrochloric acid into the stomach?
Question 19 of 30
Helicobacter pylori is a:
Question 20 of 30
A patient presents to you with several months of dyspepsia, and you arrange a H Pylori stool antigen test after a failed trial of standard dose PPI. The result is positive. Which of the following regiments would be your first-line treatment for this patient (assuming they are not allergic to penicillin)?
Question 21 of 30
A 62 year-old patient with a background of SLE comes to see you in clinic. She has been under investigation for iron-deficient anaemia come to see you for follow-up after the colonoscopy and gastroscopy. The colonoscopy has been reported as normal, but the gastroscopy image is as below:
CLO test was negative, and duodenal histology was normal with a negative tTG.
What is the most likely cause of iron deficient anaemia in this patient?
Question 22 of 30
What is the commonest underlying cause of atrophic gastritis?
Question 23 of 30
Which of the following is recognised as the strongest risk factor for gastric cancer?
Question 24 of 30
Which of the following is a functional test that can be used to confirm the presence of a hiatus hernia and gastric acid reflux?
Question 25 of 30
According to the Rome IV classification, the main subtypes of functional dyspepsia are (tick all that apply):
Question 26 of 30
Roughly what percentage of patients undergoing investigations for dyspepsia will be diagnosed with functional dyspepsia?
Question 27 of 30
The Correa cascade describes the stages of development of gastric cancer. The cascade is as below:
Normal mucosa -> Non-atrophic gastritis -> Atrophic gastritis -> ‘?’ -> Dysplasia -> Gastric cancer
What is ‘?’ in the above cascade?
Question 28 of 30
Which of the following patients with dyspepsia should be referred via a 2 week wait pathway for suspected gastro-oesophageal cancer?
Question 29 of 30
A 34-year-old comes to see you in clinic. You take a careful history, and it becomes clear that they have functional dyspepsia. They have no lower GI symptoms. According to the BSG guidelines on functional dyspepsia, which of the following tests would you do in this patient (tick all/any that apply)?
Question 30 of 30
A 48 year old undergoes investigations for weight loss, abdominal pain, severe GORD and diarrhoea. Colonoscopy is normal. OGD reveals several duodenal ulcers as well as prominent gastric folds. He is started on high-dose PPI, and after 6 weeks he is re-scoped. The ulceration persists and he remains symptomatic of GORD. What is the most likely diagnosis?